
A huge round of thanks needs to go out to Robert A. McClenathan, OD of Pennsylvania who was gracious enough to submit this excellent case. Thanks!!!
A 28-year-old white male presents to your office as a new patient. His chief complaint is that of decreasing vision in the right eye (see here), but not in the left. He denies any significant medical or ocular history. His family history is uneventful.
The external exam revealed best-corrected vision of 20/50 in the right eye, 20/25 in the left, with a mild astigmatic correction. Extraocular muscle motilities are full and smooth in all fields of gaze. Confrontation fields were normal, as well.
A slit lamp examination shows normal anterior segment health in both eyes. Goldmann IOPs were performed, with pressures of 16mm Hg in the both eyes.
Dilated fundus examination revealed C/D ratios of .4 OD, and .3 OS. The retina in the right eye revealed the appearance seen here. The left eye was almost identical, with similar bright particles dispersed along the arterioles and retinal background.
What is the correct diagnosis? How should this condition be managed?
Thanks!
Walt Mayo, OD
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